Nutrition & Respiratory Quotient
Q1.
Which of the following best defines nutrition in human physiology?
A. Process of food digestion only
B. Process by which organisms utilize food for growth and maintenance
C. Process of respiration and circulation
D. Process of food elimination
Q2.
The term “balanced diet” refers to:
A. Diet containing only proteins
B. Diet containing only carbohydrates
C. Diet containing all essential nutrients in appropriate amounts
D. Diet that excludes fats completely
Q3.
Macronutrients include all of the following except:
A. Proteins
B. Fats
C. Vitamins
D. Carbohydrates
Q4.
Which of the following nutrients yields the highest amount of energy per gram?
A. Carbohydrates
B. Proteins
C. Fats
D. Vitamins
Q5.
Respiratory Quotient (RQ) is defined as:
A. Ratio of oxygen consumed to carbon dioxide produced
B. Ratio of carbon dioxide produced to oxygen consumed
C. Ratio of ATP produced to oxygen consumed
D. Ratio of glucose oxidized to CO₂ produced
Q6.
What is the Respiratory Quotient (RQ) value for carbohydrates?
A. 0.7
B. 0.8
C. 1.0
D. 1.2
Q7.
The RQ value for fats is approximately:
A. 0.7
B. 1.0
C. 0.8
D. 1.2
Q8.
If a person is metabolizing only proteins, the expected RQ value would be closest to:
A. 1.0
B. 0.9
C. 0.8
D. 0.7
Q9.
A high RQ (>1.0) may indicate:
A. Starvation
B. Pure fat metabolism
C. Ketosis
D. Lipogenesis or overfeeding with carbohydrates
Q10.
Which of the following statements is TRUE about Respiratory Quotient (RQ)?
A. RQ for proteins is highest among macronutrients
B. RQ gives information about the substrate being metabolized
C. RQ is always 1.0 regardless of diet
D. RQ decreases in carbohydrate metabolism
Answer Key
| Q.No | Answer | |
|---|---|---|
| Q1 | B | |
| Q2 | C | |
| Q3 | C | |
| Q4 | C | |
| Q5 | B | |
| Q6 | C | |
| Q7 | A | |
| Q8 | C | |
| Q9 | D | |
| Q10 | B |
Basal Metabolic Rate (BMR) & Factors
Q1.
Basal Metabolic Rate (BMR) is defined as:
A. Energy required during heavy exercise
B. Minimum energy required for vital functions at rest
C. Energy required for digestion and absorption
D. Total energy spent in 24 hours
Q2.
Which of the following conditions is ideal for measuring BMR?
A. After a meal, in a warm room
B. During sleep
C. At complete physical and mental rest, 12 hours after a meal
D. Immediately after exercise
Q3.
Which organ contributes the most to the Basal Metabolic Rate in a resting adult?
A. Liver
B. Brain
C. Muscles
D. Heart
Q4.
Which of the following factors increases BMR?
A. Starvation
B. Hypothyroidism
C. Fever
D. Sleep
Q5.
Which hormone has the greatest influence on BMR?
A. Insulin
B. Thyroxine (T4)
C. Cortisol
D. Adrenaline
Q6.
Basal Metabolic Rate is expressed in:
A. kcal/hour
B. kcal/day
C. kcal/m²/hour
D. kcal/mg/hour
Q7.
Which of the following decreases BMR?
A. Hyperthyroidism
B. Growth hormone administration
C. Pregnancy
D. Fasting
Q8.
The most accurate method to measure BMR is:
A. Direct calorimetry
B. Body mass index
C. Skinfold thickness
D. Blood glucose estimation
Q9.
In which age group is BMR highest per unit body weight?
A. Elderly adults
B. Adolescents
C. Newborns
D. Middle-aged adults
Q10.
Which of the following body compositions is associated with higher BMR?
A. High fat mass, low muscle mass
B. Low fat mass, high muscle mass
C. High bone density only
D. Low bone and muscle mass
Answer Key
| Q.No | Answer | |
|---|---|---|
| Q1 | B | |
| Q2 | C | |
| Q3 | A | |
| Q4 | C | |
| Q5 | B | |
| Q6 | C | |
| Q7 | D | |
| Q8 | A | |
| Q9 | C | |
| Q10 | B |
Energy Expenditure & Specific Dynamic Action (SDA)
Q1.
Total energy expenditure (TEE) includes all of the following except:
A. Basal Metabolic Rate (BMR)
B. Physical activity
C. Thermic effect of food (SDA)
D. Energy lost in feces
Q2.
Specific Dynamic Action (SDA) refers to:
A. Energy used in exercise
B. Energy lost in urine
C. Extra energy used for digestion and absorption of food
D. Energy used by the brain during thinking
Q3.
Which macronutrient has the highest SDA?
A. Carbohydrates
B. Proteins
C. Fats
D. Vitamins
Q4.
Which component contributes the most to total daily energy expenditure in a sedentary person?
A. SDA
B. Physical activity
C. BMR
D. Thermoregulation
Q5.
The average SDA of proteins is approximately:
A. 2–3%
B. 5–10%
C. 15–20%
D. 30–40%
Q6.
Which of the following increases the SDA of food?
A. Cooking
B. Fasting
C. High-fat diet
D. High-protein diet
Q7.
In a healthy adult, the thermic effect of food (SDA) accounts for approximately what percentage of total energy expenditure?
A. 2%
B. 10%
C. 25%
D. 50%
Q8.
Which statement is TRUE regarding SDA?
A. SDA is higher during sleep
B. SDA is the same for all nutrients
C. SDA is highest for proteins and lowest for fats
D. SDA does not affect metabolism
Q9.
A person consumes a high-protein meal. Which of the following is likely to happen?
A. Lower energy expenditure
B. Decreased SDA
C. Increased thermogenesis
D. No change in metabolic rate
Q10.
Which organ system plays a major role in the increase in energy expenditure following food intake (SDA)?
A. Muscular system
B. Endocrine system
C. Digestive system
D. Respiratory system
🔹 Answer Key
| Q.No | Answer | |
|---|---|---|
| Q1 | D | |
| Q2 | C | |
| Q3 | B | |
| Q4 | C | |
| Q5 | C | |
| Q6 | D | |
| Q7 | B | |
| Q8 | C | |
| Q9 | C | |
| Q10 | C |
Carbohydrates, Dietary Fiber & Glycemic Index
Q1.
Which of the following is the primary function of carbohydrates in the human diet?
A. Growth and tissue repair
B. Regulation of hormones
C. Providing energy
D. Enhancing immunity
Q2.
Which of the following is a non-digestible carbohydrate that contributes to gut health?
A. Starch
B. Sucrose
C. Lactose
D. Cellulose
Q3.
Glycemic index (GI) refers to:
A. The amount of sugar in a food
B. The calorie content of food
C. The effect of food on blood cholesterol levels
D. The rate at which food increases blood glucose levels
Q4.
Which of the following has the lowest glycemic index?
A. White bread
B. Brown rice
C. Apple
D. Glucose
Q5.
Which type of fiber increases stool bulk and helps prevent constipation?
A. Soluble fiber
B. Insoluble fiber
C. Digestible fiber
D. Functional fiber
Q6.
Which of the following is a benefit of dietary fiber?
A. Increases LDL cholesterol
B. Increases glycemic index
C. Delays gastric emptying
D. Decreases insulin sensitivity
Q7.
Which of the following is a source of soluble fiber?
A. Whole wheat bran
B. Oats
C. Meat
D. Rice
Q8.
A high-glycemic index diet is associated with an increased risk of:
A. Constipation
B. Hyperthyroidism
C. Type 2 Diabetes Mellitus
D. Rickets
Q9.
Which carbohydrate is a disaccharide?
A. Glucose
B. Fructose
C. Maltose
D. Starch
Q10.
Which of the following statements about glycemic index is TRUE?
A. It is unaffected by cooking
B. It is lower in refined foods
C. Low-GI foods help maintain stable blood sugar
D. It is higher in foods with more fiber
Answer Key
| Q.No | Answer | |
|---|---|---|
| Q1 | C | |
| Q2 | D | |
| Q3 | D | |
| Q4 | C | |
| Q5 | B | |
| Q6 | C | |
| Q7 | B | |
| Q8 | C | |
| Q9 | C | |
| Q10 | C |
Lipids, EFAs & Ideal Oil
Q1.
Which of the following is the primary function of lipids in human nutrition?
A. Oxygen transport
B. Enzyme synthesis
C. Energy storage and insulation
D. DNA replication
Q2.
Which of the following is an essential fatty acid (EFA)?
A. Oleic acid
B. Linoleic acid
C. Stearic acid
D. Palmitic acid
Q3.
Essential fatty acids must be supplied in the diet because:
A. They are harmful in excess
B. They are destroyed by heat
C. They cannot be synthesized by the human body
D. They are only needed during pregnancy
Q4.
Which of the following is not a function of dietary lipids?
A. Source of essential fatty acids
B. Carrier of fat-soluble vitamins
C. Enhancing water solubility of drugs
D. Providing energy
Q5.
The term PUFA stands for:
A. Partial unsaturated fatty acid
B. Polyunsaturated fatty acid
C. Pure unsaturated fatty acid
D. Protein-utilizing fatty acid
Q6.
Which of the following oils is considered rich in essential fatty acids?
A. Coconut oil
B. Ghee
C. Groundnut oil
D. Sunflower oil
Q7.
Deficiency of essential fatty acids may lead to:
A. Rickets
B. Night blindness
C. Phrynoderma (toad skin)
D. Pellagra
Q8.
Which of the following fatty acids is classified as omega-3?
A. Linoleic acid
B. Arachidonic acid
C. Alpha-linolenic acid
D. Oleic acid
Q9.
Which statement best describes the “ideal dietary oil”?
A. Should contain only saturated fatty acids
B. Should be solid at room temperature
C. Should have a balanced ratio of omega-6 to omega-3 fatty acids
D. Should be free of all fats
Q10.
Which vitamin’s absorption is dependent on dietary fat?
A. Vitamin B12
B. Vitamin C
C. Vitamin D
D. Vitamin B6
Answer Key
| Q.No | Answer | |
|---|---|---|
| Q1 | C | |
| Q2 | B | |
| Q3 | C | |
| Q4 | C | |
| Q5 | B | |
| Q6 | D | |
| Q7 | C | |
| Q8 | C | |
| Q9 | C | |
| Q10 | C |
Proteins in Nutrition & Protein Quality Assessment
Q1.
Which of the following is the primary function of proteins in human nutrition?
A. Immediate energy source
B. Structural and functional roles in tissues
C. Vitamin synthesis
D. Water balance
Q2.
Which of the following is a complete protein source?
A. Wheat
B. Rice
C. Egg
D. Maize
Q3.
Biological Value (BV) of a protein indicates:
A. Its calorie content
B. Its fiber content
C. The percentage of absorbed protein retained in the body
D. The digestibility of carbohydrates
Q4.
Egg protein is considered a reference protein because:
A. It is rich in carbohydrates
B. It has 100% digestibility
C. It has the highest biological value
D. It is low in fat
Q5.
Which of the following is a limiting amino acid in wheat protein?
A. Methionine
B. Lysine
C. Leucine
D. Tryptophan
Q6.
Which method is used to evaluate protein digestibility?
A. Nitrogen balance
B. Anthropometry
C. Protein efficiency ratio (PER)
D. Digestibility coefficient
Q7.
The Net Protein Utilization (NPU) is calculated as:
A. Digestibility × biological value
B. Nitrogen intake − nitrogen excretion
C. Body weight gain per gram of protein consumed
D. Caloric value × absorption rate
Q8.
Kwashiorkor is primarily due to:
A. Carbohydrate deficiency
B. Protein deficiency with adequate calories
C. Total starvation
D. Vitamin A deficiency
Q9.
Mutual supplementation of proteins means:
A. Mixing two incomplete proteins to get complete amino acid profile
B. Giving high-protein supplements
C. Taking multivitamins with protein
D. Using intravenous protein infusion
Q10.
Which of the following has the highest protein efficiency ratio (PER)?
A. Wheat protein
B. Soy protein
C. Egg protein
D. Gelatin
Answer Key
| Q.No | Answer | |
|---|---|---|
| Q1 | B | |
| Q2 | C | |
| Q3 | C | |
| Q4 | C | |
| Q5 | B | |
| Q6 | D | |
| Q7 | A | |
| Q8 | B | |
| Q9 | A | |
| Q10 | C |
Nitrogen Balance
Q1.
Nitrogen balance refers to:
A. Difference between nitrogen intake and nitrogen output
B. Amount of nitrogen absorbed from the diet
C. Total nitrogen excreted in urine only
D. Nitrogen stored in muscles
Q2.
A state of positive nitrogen balance indicates:
A. More nitrogen is excreted than consumed
B. Body is losing protein
C. Body is synthesizing more protein than it is breaking down
D. Nitrogen intake equals nitrogen output
Q3.
Which of the following conditions is most likely associated with negative nitrogen balance?
A. Pregnancy
B. Growth phase
C. Starvation
D. Anabolic steroid use
Q4.
Which of the following is the main route of nitrogen excretion in humans?
A. Sweat
B. Urine
C. Feces
D. Breath
Q5.
During recovery from surgery, the patient is likely to have:
A. Negative nitrogen balance
B. Zero nitrogen balance
C. Positive nitrogen balance
D. Nitrogen equilibrium
Q6.
Nitrogen balance studies help in assessing:
A. Fat metabolism
B. Protein metabolism
C. Carbohydrate metabolism
D. Mineral metabolism
Q7.
Which of the following will most likely cause positive nitrogen balance?
A. Starvation
B. Severe trauma
C. Pregnancy
D. Severe infection
Q8.
Nitrogen balance is zero when:
A. Nitrogen intake exceeds nitrogen output
B. Nitrogen output exceeds nitrogen intake
C. Nitrogen intake equals nitrogen output
D. Nitrogen intake is zero
Q9.
Which of the following is NOT included in nitrogen output measurement?
A. Urinary urea nitrogen
B. Fecal nitrogen
C. Sweat nitrogen
D. Dietary nitrogen intake
Q10.
In which of the following situations is nitrogen balance most likely positive?
A. Chronic illness
B. Muscle wasting
C. Childhood growth
D. Severe burns
Answer Key
| Q.No | Answer | |
|---|---|---|
| Q1 | A | |
| Q2 | C | |
| Q3 | C | |
| Q4 | B | |
| Q5 | A | |
| Q6 | B | |
| Q7 | C | |
| Q8 | C | |
| Q9 | D | |
| Q10 | C |
Balanced Diet & Recommended Dietary Allowance (RDA)
Q1.
A balanced diet is one which:
A. Contains only carbohydrates and proteins
B. Contains all nutrients in required amounts and proportions
C. Contains excess calories for energy
D. Excludes fats to avoid weight gain
Q2.
Recommended Dietary Allowance (RDA) refers to:
A. Maximum amount of nutrients a person can consume
B. Minimum amount needed to prevent deficiency
C. Average daily intake level sufficient for nearly all healthy individuals
D. Amount of nutrients needed during illness
Q3.
Which of the following is not a component of a balanced diet?
A. Carbohydrates
B. Proteins
C. Vitamins
D. Antibiotics
Q4.
Which of the following groups requires the highest RDA of calcium?
A. Adult men
B. Elderly men
C. Adolescent girls
D. Postmenopausal women
Q5.
What percentage of total daily calories should ideally come from fats in a balanced diet?
A. 10–15%
B. 20–30%
C. 40–50%
D. Less than 5%
Q6.
Which organization sets the RDA values in India?
A. WHO
B. ICMR/NIN
C. FAO
D. AIIMS
Q7.
Which nutrient is generally recommended in greater amounts during pregnancy?
A. Vitamin C
B. Vitamin B12
C. Iron and folic acid
D. Vitamin A only
Q8.
Which food item is rich in both carbohydrates and proteins and is recommended in a balanced vegetarian diet?
A. Rice
B. Egg
C. Pulses
D. Ghee
Q9.
The energy requirement for an average Indian adult male with moderate activity is approximately:
A. 1200 kcal/day
B. 1800 kcal/day
C. 2400 kcal/day
D. 3000 kcal/day
Q10.
Which of the following is a limitation of using RDA in clinical practice?
A. It applies to all patients, including the sick
B. It considers genetic factors
C. It provides average needs, not individualized requirements
D. It includes drug dosages
Answer Key
| Q.No | Answer | |
|---|---|---|
| Q1 | B | |
| Q2 | C | |
| Q3 | D | |
| Q4 | C | |
| Q5 | B | |
| Q6 | B | |
| Q7 | C | |
| Q8 | C | |
| Q9 | C | |
| Q10 | C |
Diet in Pregnancy, Lactation, Cardiovascular & Kidney Diseases
Q1.
Which nutrient is especially important during pregnancy to prevent neural tube defects?
A. Vitamin C
B. Folic acid
C. Iron
D. Calcium
Q2.
During lactation, the maternal diet should be:
A. Restricted in calories to prevent weight gain
B. High in fluids and increased calories
C. Low in protein to reduce milk production
D. High in saturated fats only
Q3.
Which of the following is a recommended dietary modification in cardiovascular disease (CVD)?
A. High salt intake
B. Low saturated fat and cholesterol diet
C. High trans-fat consumption
D. Excessive red meat intake
Q4.
In chronic kidney disease (CKD), protein intake is generally:
A. Increased to promote healing
B. Reduced to decrease kidney workload
C. Same as normal diet
D. Eliminated completely
Q5.
Which vitamin is commonly supplemented during pregnancy to prevent anemia?
A. Vitamin A
B. Vitamin D
C. Vitamin B12
D. Iron
Q6.
A recommended dietary practice for a patient with hypertension is:
A. Increased sodium intake
B. DASH diet (Dietary Approaches to Stop Hypertension)
C. High processed food consumption
D. High cholesterol diet
Q7.
During lactation, which nutrient is required in significantly higher amounts?
A. Vitamin C
B. Calcium
C. Energy (calories)
D. Fiber
Q8.
Which type of fat is recommended to be limited in cardiovascular disease management?
A. Monounsaturated fat
B. Polyunsaturated fat
C. Saturated fat
D. Omega-3 fatty acids
Q9.
In patients with end-stage kidney disease on dialysis, dietary protein requirement is generally:
A. Reduced
B. Increased
C. Unchanged
D. Eliminated
Q10.
Pregnant women are advised to increase intake of which mineral to support fetal bone development?
A. Sodium
B. Potassium
C. Calcium
D. Magnesium
Answer Key
| Q.No | Answer | |
|---|---|---|
| Q1 | B | |
| Q2 | B | |
| Q3 | B | |
| Q4 | B | |
| Q5 | D | |
| Q6 | B | |
| Q7 | C | |
| Q8 | C | |
| Q9 | B | |
| Q10 | C |
PEM – Kwashiorkor and Marasmus
Q1.
Which of the following is a characteristic feature of Kwashiorkor?
A. Severe wasting with no edema
B. Edema and fatty liver
C. Loss of subcutaneous fat without edema
D. Hyperactivity and irritability
Q2.
Marasmus primarily results from:
A. Protein deficiency with adequate calories
B. Total calorie deficiency
C. Vitamin A deficiency
D. Excess fat intake
Q3.
Which of the following clinical signs is commonly seen in Kwashiorkor but not in marasmus?
A. Muscle wasting
B. Edema
C. Loss of fat
D. Growth retardation
Q4.
Which of the following is a common laboratory finding in Kwashiorkor?
A. Hypoalbuminemia
B. Hyperalbuminemia
C. Normal serum albumin
D. Elevated blood urea
Q5.
The “flaky paint” or patchy skin lesion is typically seen in:
A. Marasmus
B. Kwashiorkor
C. Scurvy
D. Pellagra
Q6.
Which of the following best describes the age group commonly affected by marasmus?
A. Older children (2–5 years)
B. Adults
C. Infants less than 1 year
D. Adolescents
Q7.
In PEM, the immune system is compromised mainly because of:
A. Vitamin C deficiency
B. Protein deficiency
C. Excess carbohydrate intake
D. Iron overload
Q8.
Which of the following is the most effective initial treatment in severe Kwashiorkor?
A. High-protein diet immediately
B. Gradual nutritional rehabilitation with antibiotics
C. Vitamin A only
D. Fluid restriction
Q9.
Which PEM type is characterized by “old man” appearance due to loss of fat and muscle?
A. Kwashiorkor
B. Marasmus
C. Marasmic-kwashiorkor
D. Rickets
Q10.
Which of the following is true regarding serum albumin levels in marasmus?
A. Markedly low
B. Normal or slightly reduced
C. Markedly elevated
D. Fluctuates with calorie intake
Answer Key
| Q.No | Answer | |
|---|---|---|
| Q1 | B | |
| Q2 | B | |
| Q3 | B | |
| Q4 | A | |
| Q5 | B | |
| Q6 | C | |
| Q7 | B | |
| Q8 | B | |
| Q9 | B | |
| Q10 | B |
Obesity
Q1.
Which of the following is the most commonly used method to assess obesity?
A. Body Mass Index (BMI)
B. Waist circumference only
C. Skinfold thickness
D. Blood pressure measurement
Q2.
A BMI of 30 kg/m² or more is classified as:
A. Normal weight
B. Overweight
C. Obesity
D. Underweight
Q3.
Which hormone is primarily responsible for appetite suppression?
A. Ghrelin
B. Leptin
C. Insulin
D. Cortisol
Q4.
Central or abdominal obesity is associated with increased risk of:
A. Osteoporosis
B. Cardiovascular diseases
C. Infectious diseases
D. Anemia
Q5.
Which of the following is a common complication of obesity?
A. Hypotension
B. Type 2 Diabetes Mellitus
C. Hyperthyroidism
D. Vitamin D deficiency
Q6.
Which of the following lifestyle changes is most effective for long-term weight management?
A. High protein diet only
B. Regular physical activity with balanced diet
C. Complete fasting
D. High-fat diet
Q7.
The term “metabolic syndrome” includes all except:
A. Central obesity
B. Hypertension
C. Hyperglycemia
D. Hypotension
Q8.
Which of the following medications is approved for obesity treatment?
A. Metformin
B. Orlistat
C. Insulin
D. Aspirin
Q9.
Which fat distribution pattern is more common in females?
A. Android (apple-shaped)
B. Gynoid (pear-shaped)
C. Central obesity
D. Visceral obesity
Q10.
Which of the following is NOT a risk factor for developing obesity?
A. Sedentary lifestyle
B. High caloric intake
C. Genetic predisposition
D. High physical activity
Answer Key
| Q.No | Answer | |
|---|---|---|
| Q1 | A | |
| Q2 | C | |
| Q3 | B | |
| Q4 | B | |
| Q5 | B | |
| Q6 | B | |
| Q7 | D | |
| Q8 | B | |
| Q9 | B | |
| Q10 | D |
Case-Based and Analytical MCQs
Q1.
A 9-month-old infant presents with edema, distended abdomen, irritability, and flaky skin lesions. The child is breastfed but weaning foods are mostly carbohydrate-based with very little protein. Lab investigations show hypoalbuminemia.
What is the most likely diagnosis?
A. Marasmus
B. Kwashiorkor
C. Scurvy
D. Rickets
Q2.
A 45-year-old man with a sedentary lifestyle has a BMI of 32 kg/m² and increased waist circumference. He complains of fatigue and occasional breathlessness on exertion.
Which dietary modification is most appropriate?
A. High carbohydrate, low fat diet
B. Low saturated fat, increased dietary fiber intake
C. High protein, high fat diet
D. Low fiber, high sugar diet
Q3.
A patient is advised to increase dietary fiber intake. Which of the following is a known benefit of dietary fiber?
A. Increases blood cholesterol levels
B. Reduces postprandial blood glucose spikes
C. Increases constipation
D. Enhances fat absorption
Q4.
A young woman following a strict vegetarian balanced diet complains of fatigue and pallor. Her diet is rich in cereals, pulses, vegetables, and fruits. Which nutrient deficiency is most likely causing her symptoms?
A. Vitamin C deficiency
B. Iron deficiency
C. Protein deficiency
D. Calcium deficiency
Q5.
In PEM, which of the following differentiates marasmus from kwashiorkor?
A. Presence of edema
B. Age group affected
C. Presence of fatty liver
D. All of the above
Q6.
A 50-year-old woman with metabolic syndrome is advised to follow the DASH diet. Which one of the following components is emphasized in this diet?
A. High sodium intake
B. High saturated fats
C. Increased fruits and vegetables
D. High processed sugar
Q7.
A child with suspected PEM has severe wasting but no edema. His serum albumin is normal. Which type of PEM does this describe?
A. Kwashiorkor
B. Marasmus
C. Marasmic-kwashiorkor
D. Scurvy
Q8.
Which of the following is true regarding a balanced diet?
A. Should exclude fats to reduce calorie intake
B. Provides all essential nutrients in correct proportions
C. Focuses only on proteins and carbohydrates
D. Is only required during illness
Q9.
A patient with type 2 diabetes is advised to consume high-fiber foods. Which effect of dietary fiber will most benefit this patient?
A. Increased blood cholesterol
B. Delayed gastric emptying and reduced glucose absorption
C. Increased postprandial glucose spikes
D. Decreased satiety
Q10.
A 3-year-old child presents with irritability, edema, hepatomegaly, and a history of being fed mostly diluted rice water with little protein. What is the first step in management?
A. Immediate high-protein feeding
B. Gradual nutritional rehabilitation with management of infections
C. Restriction of fluids
D. Vitamin A supplementation only
Answer Key
| Q.No | Answer | |
|---|---|---|
| Q1 | B | |
| Q2 | B | |
| Q3 | B | |
| Q4 | B | |
| Q5 | D | |
| Q6 | C | |
| Q7 | B | |
| Q8 | B | |
| Q9 | B | |
| Q10 | B |